A 42-year-old man presents with a gunshot wound to the left neck at C3 level. Vital signs: BP 145/92, HR 98, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. He develops right-sided weakness below the neck, left-sided loss of pain and temperature sensation below the neck, and left-sided vibration sense loss in the upper extremity. Motor strength testing confirms right-sided deficits. MRI shows left-sided spinal cord lesion. Cranial nerves II-XII are intact. Which syndrome does this represent?
- A)Brown-Séquard syndromeGABARITO
- B)Anterior spinal artery syndrome
- C)Posterior spinal artery syndrome
- D)Cauda equina syndrome
- E)Central cord syndrome
Explicação
Brown-Séquard syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord. Ipsilateral (left) motor loss and vibration sense loss below the lesion reflect ipsilateral corticospinal tract and dorsal column damage. Contralateral (right) pain/temperature loss reflects d... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →