A 28-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents with acute chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope. On examination, she has a blood pressure difference between arms (systolic 160 mmHg right, 100 mmHg left), and an early diastolic murmur is heard at the left sternal border. Transesophageal echocardiography shows aortic root dilatation and aortic regurgitation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Spontaneous coronary artery dissection
- B)Aortic root dissection with aortic regurgitationGABARITO
- C)Pulmonary embolism
- D)Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
- E)Acute aortic stenosis
Explicação
Aortic root dissection in Marfan syndrome (due to fibrillin-1 deficiency and connective tissue weakness) presents acutely with severe chest pain, syncope, and hemodynamic instability. Blood pressure differential between arms indicates involvement of the brachi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →