A 43-year-old woman with a 6-year history of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her primary care physician for a routine follow-up. Her current medications include metformin 1000 mg twice daily, but her glycemic control remains suboptimal. Her HbA1c is 8.9%, fasting glucose is 187 mg/dL, and her BMI is 36 kg/m². Blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg and heart rate is 82 bpm. Physical examination reveals central adiposity with no peripheral edema. She expresses a strong desire for a medication that can improve glycemic control while also promoting weight loss, and she is comfortable with injectable therapy. Her physician starts a once-weekly injectable drug that increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon release, and slows gastric emptying. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
- A)Sitagliptin
- B)SemaglutideGABARITO
- C)Pramlintide
- D)Glyburide
- E)Metformin
Explicação
Semaglutide is a GLP 1 receptor agonist that increases glucose dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon release, slows gastric emptying, and promotes weight loss. Those combined effects make it especially attractive in a patient with obesity and type 2 ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →