A 43-year-old woman with a 6-year history of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her primary care physician for a routine follow-up. Her current medications include metformin 1000 mg twice daily, but her glycemic control remains suboptimal. Her HbA1c is 8.9%, fasting glucose is 187 mg/dL, and her BMI is 36 kg/m². Blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg and heart rate is 82 bpm. Physical examination reveals central adiposity with no peripheral edema. She expresses a strong desire for a medication that can improve glycemic control while also promoting weight loss, and she is comfortable with injectable therapy. Her physician starts a once-weekly injectable drug that increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon release, and slows gastric emptying. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?

  1. A)Sitagliptin
  2. B)SemaglutideGABARITO
  3. C)Pramlintide
  4. D)Glyburide
  5. E)Metformin

Explicação

Semaglutide is a GLP 1 receptor agonist that increases glucose dependent insulin secretion, decreases glucagon release, slows gastric emptying, and promotes weight loss. Those combined effects make it especially attractive in a patient with obesity and type 2 ... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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