A 30-year-old woman with three recurrent first-trimester miscarriages presents with left leg swelling and pain. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 92, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Duplex ultrasound confirms left femoral deep venous thrombosis. Laboratory studies reveal prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT 48 seconds) that does not correct with normal plasma mixing. Platelet count is normal at 250,000/μL. She denies prior thrombotic events or anticoagulant use. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?

  1. A)Antiphospholipid antibody syndromeGABARITO
  2. B)Vitamin K deficiency
  3. C)Von Willebrand disease
  4. D)Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  5. E)Hemophilia A

Explicação

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is correct. This disorder causes arterial and venous thrombosis, pregnancy loss, and a paradoxically prolonged PTT because antibodies interfere with phospholipid based coagulation assays in vitro. Clinically, patients are hyp... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →

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