A 58-year-old woman with hypertension presents after sudden collapse. Vital signs: BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 102, RR 18, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. She is awake and alert with intact vertical eye movements but cannot voluntely move her limbs, face, or tongue. Horizontal eye movements are absent. MRI shows acute pontine infarction. She denies recent anticoagulation use. Which brainstem lesion best explains this clinical presentation?
- A)Bilateral ventral pontine infarction due to basilar artery occlusionGABARITO
- B)Unilateral lateral medullary infarction
- C)Bilateral occipital infarction
- D)Cerebellar vermis hemorrhage
- E)Midbrain tectal lesion
Explicação
Bilateral ventral pontine infarction due to basilar artery occlusion is the correct answer because locked-in syndrome causes quadriplegia and loss of voluntary facial and bulbar movements while consciousness and vertical eye movements are preserved if the reti... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →