A 72-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history and hypertension presents for routine care. Vital signs show BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 84 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C. On abdominal examination, a pulsatile mass is palpated slightly left of midline above the umbilicus. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a 4.2 cm anterior-posterior diameter aortic lumen with mural thrombus. No lower extremity edema is noted. He takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Which underlying etiology best explains these findings?
- A)Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries
- B)Tertiary syphilitic destruction of the vasa vasorum
- C)Congenital absence of elastic tissue in the aorta
- D)Autoimmune granulomatous inflammation of branch vessels
- E)Atherosclerotic weakening of the abdominal aortic wallGABARITO
Explicação
Abdominal aortic aneurysm is strongly associated with atherosclerosis, older age, male sex, and smoking. Infrarenal aneurysms are the classic location and may present as a pulsatile abdominal mass. Atherosclerotic damage weakens the wall and promotes progressi... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →