A 36-year-old man with HIV presents with progressive bilateral lower extremity edema and frothy urine. Vital signs: BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Laboratory studies reveal serum albumin 2.1 g/dL, 24-hour urine protein 8.2 g, and serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows no hematuria. Renal biopsy demonstrates focal segmental glomerulosclerosis with hyalinosis on light microscopy. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Amyloidosis
- B)Membranous nephropathy
- C)Minimal change disease
- D)Diabetic nephropathy
- E)Focal segmental glomerulosclerosisGABARITO
Explicação
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and is strongly associated with HIV infection, heroin use, obesity, and sickle cell disease. It features sclerosis involving some glomeruli and only parts of affected glomerul... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →