A 29-year-old woman with a 2-year history of infertility secondary to anovulation presents wanting to conceive. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 72, RR 14, Temp 98.6°F, SpO2 98%. Serum progesterone is undetectable. Pelvic ultrasound shows no ovarian cysts. She takes no hormonal contraceptives. Her physician prescribes a medication that blocks estrogen negative feedback at the hypothalamus, thereby increasing GnRH, FSH, and LH secretion to induce ovulation. Which drug was most likely prescribed?
- A)ClomipheneGABARITO
- B)Leuprolide
- C)Raloxifene
- D)Tamoxifen
- E)Mifepristone
Explicação
Clomiphene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that blocks estrogen feedback at the hypothalamus and pituitary, increasing GnRH pulsatility and gonadotropin release. It is commonly used to induce ovulation in anovulatory infertility. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →