A 43-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of progressive involuntary choreiform movements, irritability, and cognitive decline affecting work performance. Vital signs: BP 128/82, HR 92, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. His father died of similar symptoms at age 50. Brain MRI shows bilateral caudate atrophy. The patient denies substance use and reports no recent head trauma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A)Huntington diseaseGABARITO
- B)Wilson disease
- C)Essential tremor
- D)Parkinson disease
- E)Myasthenia gravis
Explicação
Huntington disease is the correct answer because it causes autosomal dominant chorea, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline, typically due to CAG repeat expansion with caudate degeneration. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →