A 45-year-old man with a 10-year history of relapsing-remitting MS presents with progressive leg weakness, spasticity, and bladder dysfunction over 3 years without distinct relapses. Vital signs: BP 145/92, HR 88, RR 16, temperature 37°C. Brain and spinal cord MRI demonstrate multiple T2 hyperintense lesions with spinal cord atrophy. CSF analysis shows no oligoclonal bands. He denies recent vision changes. Which disease course best describes his condition?
- A)Primary progressive MS
- B)Benign MS
- C)Progressive-relapsing MS
- D)Secondary progressive MSGABARITO
- E)Relapsing-remitting MS with superimposed acute relapse
Explicação
Secondary progressive MS occurs when patients with relapsing-remitting MS transition to a progressive course with steady worsening independent of relapses. The 10-year RRMS history followed by 3 years of insidious progression without distinct relapses is class... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →