A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain and leg swelling. She reports two unexplained pregnancy losses in the past year and was hospitalized 18 months ago for a left lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. Vital signs are stable. Laboratory evaluation reveals a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) that does not correct when normal plasma is added to the patient's plasma (mixing study). Serum anticardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant are both positive. CT angiography confirms acute mesenteric venous thrombosis. Which of the following additional laboratory findings is most consistent with this patient's diagnosis?
- A)Elevated factor VIII activity
- B)Thrombocytopenia with fragmented red blood cells on blood smear
- C)Markedly elevated D-dimer with normal fibrinogen
- D)Positive direct Coombs test with elevated indirect bilirubin
- E)Normal prothrombin time with normal protein C levelGABARITO
Explicação
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is characterized by recurrent thrombosis (venous or arterial), recurrent pregnancy losses, and persistently positive antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin or lupus anticoagulant). The aPTT prolongation that does not corre... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →