A 44-year-old woman with a 3-year history of hypertension poorly controlled on lisinopril presents with progressive muscle cramps and fatigue. Vital signs show BP 168/102 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Labs reveal serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L, bicarbonate 32 mEq/L, suppressed plasma renin activity 0.3 ng/mL/hr, and elevated aldosterone 28 ng/dL. Urinary sodium is normal. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
- A)Conn syndromeGABARITO
- B)Primary adrenal insufficiency
- C)SIADH
- D)Diabetic ketoacidosis
- E)Pheochromocytoma
Explicação
Primary hyperaldosteronism, also called Conn syndrome, causes sodium retention, potassium wasting, and hydrogen ion loss. The result is hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, low renin, and high aldosterone. An adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyp... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →