A 57-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus started an oral antihyperglycemic agent two months ago. He now presents with polyuria and recurrent candidal balanitis. Vital signs show BP 138/82 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Recent urinalysis reveals 3+ glucose and no ketonuria. He denies polydipsia. The medication lowers blood glucose by blocking renal glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule. Which drug most likely caused these findings?
- A)Glyburide
- B)EmpagliflozinGABARITO
- C)Sitagliptin
- D)Metformin
- E)Pioglitazone
Explicação
Empagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor that blocks proximal tubular glucose reabsorption, causing glucosuria. That mechanism explains the recurrent mycotic infections, polyuria, and modest weight loss seen after starting the medication. Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →