A 67 year old man develops dizziness and blurred vision when he uses his left arm to carry groceries. Blood pressure in the left arm is lower than in the right. A bruit is heard over the left supraclavicular area. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his symptoms?
- A)Retrograde flow in the vertebral artery due to proximal subclavian stenosisGABARITO
- B)Thromboembolism from the left atrial appendage
- C)Vasospasm of the digital arteries
- D)Aortic dissection extending into the carotid artery
- E)Compression of the brachial plexus in the thoracic outlet
Explicação
Retrograde flow in the vertebral artery due to proximal subclavian stenosis is correct. In subclavian steal syndrome, exercise of the ipsilateral arm increases demand and diverts blood away from the vertebrobasilar circulation, causing neurologic symptoms. The... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →