A 61-year-old man with stable chronic heart failure and reduced ejection fraction (EF 32%) presents with dyspnea on exertion. Vital signs: BP 128/76 mmHg, HR 89 bpm, RR 18, SpO2 98% on room air. He has moderate asthma without current wheezing. The team initiates evidence-based heart failure therapy but requires an agent with relative beta-1 selectivity to minimize bronchospasm risk. He takes no current beta blockers. Which drug is most appropriate?
- A)Carvedilol only because it is beta-2 selective
- B)Phenoxybenzamine
- C)MetoprololGABARITO
- D)Propranolol
- E)Timolol
Explicação
Metoprolol is a relatively beta-1 selective blocker and is one of the agents shown to improve survival in chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. In a patient with coexisting reactive airway disease, beta-1 selectivity can be advantageous compare... Ver explicação completa e trilha adaptativa →